What is the format of EDAIC Part 1?

A written examination in Multiple True/False (MTF) format, sat as two papers — Paper A (basic sciences) and Paper B (clinical anaesthesia and intensive care). Each question has one stem and five independent true/false statements, scored +1 per correct statement with no negative marking.

How should I prepare for EDAIC Part 1?

Combine syllabus-mapped reading with heavy MTF practice and spaced repetition. Work through questions by topic, review the explanation for every statement, and use mock exams to build exam stamina and identify weak areas.

AnesCORE focuses entirely on Part 1 (Paper A and Paper B). Part 2 is the structured oral examination and is not part of this platform.

EDAIC Part 1 (2026): Dates, Format & How to Prepare + Free Questions

Paper A · Anatomy

1. Regarding the blood supply to the spinal cord and its clinical relevance during aortic surgery:

A.The artery of Adamkiewicz typically arises between T9 and T12 in the majority of individuals.
B.The anterior spinal artery supplies the posterior one-third of the spinal cord, including the dorsal columns.
C.Spinal cord perfusion pressure is calculated as distal mean aortic pressure minus the higher of CSF pressure or central venous pressure.
D.Autoregulation of spinal cord blood flow is maintained during hypoxia and hypercapnia, ensuring constant perfusion.
E.CSF drainage during thoracic aortic aneurysm repair aims to reduce CSF pressure and thereby improve spinal cord perfusion pressure.

▸ Show answers & explanations

A.TRUE
Why: The great radicular artery (artery of Adamkiewicz) is the major blood supply to the lower two-thirds of the spinal cord and originates between T9 and T12 in approximately 75% of cases.

Paper A · Anatomy

2. Regarding ultrasound imaging characteristics of peripheral nerves and the technical principles of ultrasound-guided regional anesthesia:

A.Peripheral nerves are typically visualized in the long axis during ultrasound-guided regional anesthesia to optimize needle tracking.
B.The honeycomb appearance seen on ultrasound corresponds to the fascicular echotexture of a polyfascicular peripheral nerve in short-axis view.
C.An out-of-plane needle technique is visualized as a bright echogenic dot crossing the plane of the ultrasound beam.
D.Consistent evidence shows that the in-plane needle approach yields superior clinical outcomes compared with the out-of-plane approach for all regional blocks.
E.Echogenic needle designs with textured surfaces improve needle tip detection by generating stronger ultrasound reflections back toward the transducer.

▸ Show answers & explanations

A.FALSE
Why: Peripheral nerves are usually viewed in short axis rather than long axis during ultrasound-guided regional anesthesia.
B.TRUE
Why: The honeycomb appearance on sonogram represents the fascicles of a polyfascicular peripheral nerve viewed in short axis.
C.TRUE
Why: In the out-of-plane technique, the needle crosses the plane of imaging and appears as an echogenic dot on the sonogram.
D.FALSE
Why: Most studies suggest that adequate visualization and correct identification of structures is more important than the specific needle approach for outcomes after regional blocks.
E.TRUE
Why: Textured surfaces on echogenic needles are manufactured to improve needle tip detection by generating more recordable echoes compared with smooth conventional needles.

Paper A · Equipment

3. Concerning oropharyngeal and nasopharyngeal airway adjuncts during anaesthesia:

A.Oropharyngeal airways are sized by measuring from the corner of the mouth to the angle of the jaw or the earlobe.
B.Nasopharyngeal airways are more stimulating than oropharyngeal airways and are more likely to provoke laryngospasm.
C.Nasopharyngeal airways are designed to lift the soft palate off the pharyngeal wall to eliminate airway obstruction at that level.
D.Oropharyngeal airways are appropriate for use in conscious patients as they do not stimulate pharyngeal reflexes.
E.An inappropriately sized oropharyngeal airway can worsen airway obstruction rather than relieve it.

▸ Show answers & explanations

A.TRUE
Why: Correct sizing of oropharyngeal airways involves measuring from the corner of the mouth to the angle of the jaw or the earlobe, as described in Miller's Anesthesia.
B.FALSE
Why: Nasopharyngeal airways are less stimulating than oropharyngeal airways; oropharyngeal airways can precipitate coughing, retching, or laryngospasm because they contact the base of the tongue and epiglottis.
C.TRUE
Why: The nasopharyngeal airway is designed to lift the soft palate off the pharyngeal wall, thereby eliminating this mode of airway obstruction.
D.FALSE
Why: Oropharyngeal airways can precipitate coughing, retching, or laryngospasm and are not appropriate for use in conscious patients who have not had local anaesthetic applied to the airway.
E.TRUE
Why: Inappropriately sized oropharyngeal airways can actually worsen airway obstruction, making correct size selection critically important.

Paper B · Emergency Medicine

4. Regarding the use of automated external defibrillators (AEDs) and defibrillation strategies in cardiac arrest, which of the following statements are correct?

A.A Cochrane systematic review compared CPR plus delayed defibrillation versus immediate defibrillation for out-of-hospital cardiac arrest.
B.The presence of sonographically identified cardiac activity has been shown to reliably predict resuscitation outcomes in cardiac arrest patients.
C.Automated external defibrillators have been shown to improve survival after in-hospital cardiac arrest when used promptly.
D.A period of CPR before defibrillation is recommended for all out-of-hospital cardiac arrest patients regardless of the time to first rhythm analysis.
E.Three termination of resuscitation criteria have been validated for predicting good neurologic survival after out-of-hospital cardiac arrest.

▸ Show answers & explanations

A.TRUE
Why: Huang et al. (2014) conducted a Cochrane systematic review comparing cardiopulmonary resuscitation plus delayed defibrillation versus immediate defibrillation for out-of-hospital cardiac arrest, examining the optimal timing of defibrillation.
B.TRUE
Why: Salen et al. (2005) investigated whether the presence or absence of sonographically identified cardiac activity predicts resuscitation outcomes, finding it to be a useful prognostic indicator during cardiac arrest.
C.TRUE
Why: Chan et al. (2010) demonstrated that AED use was associated with improved survival after in-hospital cardiac arrest, supporting their deployment in hospital settings.
D.FALSE
Why: FALSE — Trap: The Cochrane review by Huang et al. found that the benefit of CPR before defibrillation depends on the time to defibrillation. It is not recommended for all patients regardless of time to rhythm analysis; the benefit is primarily seen when there is a prolonged response time.
E.TRUE
Why: Ruygrok et al. (2009) validated three termination of resuscitation criteria for predicting good neurologic survival after out-of-hospital cardiac arrest, providing evidence-based guidance for when resuscitation efforts may be ceased.

Paper B · General Anaesthesia

5. Regarding inhalational induction of anaesthesia in adults, which of the following statements are correct?

A.Sevoflurane is the volatile agent of choice for inhalational induction because of its low blood-gas partition coefficient and minimal airway irritation.
B.A single-breath technique using a prefilled 4-L reservoir bag containing sevoflurane 8% in oxygen can achieve induction within 20–30 seconds in cooperative patients.
C.Ether is preferred over sevoflurane for inhalational induction in resource-limited settings due to its rapid onset and pleasant odor.
D.During inhalational induction, maintenance concentrations of isoflurane are typically 3%–4% once anaesthesia is established.
E.Stage 2 of anaesthesia during inhalational induction is associated with a risk of laryngeal spasm if the pharynx or larynx is stimulated.

▸ Show answers & explanations

A.TRUE
Why: Sevoflurane is typically used for inhalational induction due to its low blood-gas partition coefficient and non-irritant properties, allowing smooth induction.
B.TRUE
Why: The single-breath technique with high-concentration sevoflurane in a prefilled reservoir bag enables rapid induction in cooperative patients.
C.FALSE
Why: FALSE — Trap: Ether has a very high blood-gas partition coefficient (12), making inhalational induction slow and technically challenging; it is not preferred for induction.
D.FALSE
Why: FALSE — Trap: Maintenance concentrations of isoflurane are 1%–2%, not 3%–4%, once anaesthesia has been established.
E.TRUE
Why: Complications during inhalational induction include problems during stage 2, when pharyngeal or laryngeal stimulation may trigger laryngeal spasm.

Paper B · Guidelines and Current Literature

6. Regarding the use of novel oral anticoagulants for stroke prevention in atrial fibrillation:

A.Dabigatran, rivaroxaban, apixaban, and edoxaban are now commonly utilized for thromboprophylaxis in atrial fibrillation.
B.Warfarin remains the only recommended anticoagulant for stroke prevention in atrial fibrillation according to current guidelines.
C.Stroke prevention with anticoagulation must be counterbalanced by the risk of intracranial and extracranial bleeding.
D.Anticoagulation must be discontinued for patients with atrial fibrillation who develop active bleeding in the ICU.
E.Aspirin monotherapy is no longer considered a viable option for stroke prevention in atrial fibrillation under any clinical scenario.

▸ Show answers & explanations

A.TRUE
Why: Novel oral anticoagulants including these four agents are now commonly used for thromboprophylaxis in AF.
B.FALSE
Why: FALSE — Trap: While warfarin was the mainstay in the past, novel oral anticoagulants are now commonly utilized and have largely supplemented warfarin.
C.TRUE
Why: The benefit of stroke prevention is counterbalanced by the risk of both intracranial and extracranial bleeding with anticoagulation.
D.TRUE
Why: Anticoagulation must be discontinued for AF patients with active bleeding in the ICU.
E.FALSE
Why: FALSE — Trap: The source states that aspirin alone can be considered for management based on patient preference and the clinical scenario.

EDAIC Part 1: format, syllabus & how to prepare

What is EDAIC Part 1?

The subjects you need to cover

EDAIC Part 1 preparation guides

Free EDAIC Part 1 sample questions

Practise with the question bank

EDAIC Part 1 FAQ

What is the format of EDAIC Part 1?

How should I prepare for EDAIC Part 1?

Is Part 2 covered?

Start preparing for EDAIC Part 1